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Here is a recent comment posted to this site. I've tidied up the grammar and spelling a little, but otherwise this is verbatim.
Our modern English alphabet is only 375 years old. There were older alphabets with 19 letters, 21 letters and 23 letters. At the time of the Bible 2000 years ago there was no 'j' or 'u' letters in the alphabet. There could not have been a John the Baptist, or Jesus -- the truth is taught in first grade! How could someone grow up so stupid with the basics of first grade english or earth science?
If we follow this reasoning for a moment, we find there could not have been a 'Julius Caesar' either -- apart from 'j' and 'u', the common language of the first century (Greek) had no 'c' either. (Though it did have a 'u', that's simply a mistake on the above writer's part.)
In the Greek text of the New Testament, from which English Bibles are translated, 'Jesus Christ' appears as Ἰησους Χρίστος. This name can be written as 'Iesous Xristos' ("ee-yay-soos kris-tos") in English. The word we write 'Iesous' is the Greek form of the Hebrew name that we translate as 'Joshua'. In the same way that 'Yahweh', the Old Testament name for God, became 'Jehovah' in later European usage, 'Iesous' came to be pronounced 'Jesus'. In other languages it followed a different course, becoming 'Isa', for instance, in Arabic, or 'Yassus' in colloquial Afrikaaner. That's actually all that's happening here. It's like how Ἰυλιυς Καίσαρος transliterates as 'Iulius Kaisaros' -- but we call him 'Julius Caesar'.
This 'alphabetic' argument is a very poor basis for accusing all the world's historians and linguists of having a pre-school level of understanding. It was, to use a phrase I very seldom use, a geniunely stupid question. That is to say, it was obviously a view held by almost no-one, and a little fact-checking would quickly have shown why.